[Math] United States of America Mathematical Olympiad (USAMO) 2015 Problem 3


As high school math competition gets harder and harder, it becomes notable for me to independently solve solve a 3/6 problem at IMO. Given USAMO appears, in my opinion, to be at least as hard as IMO, I should write this down.

Problem: Let n be a positive integer. We color each subset of N = {1, 2, ..., n} with blue or red, including empty set. Given a subset A of N, let f(A) be the number of blue subsets of A. Find T(n), the number of colorings such that for any subsets A and B of N.

f(A)f(B) = f(AB)f(AB) (*)

At first I wasn't sure whether it's a combinatoric or functional problem, though there is never a need, and actually bad, for every problem to belong to a specific category because that gives people some non-intuitive clue to the approach. After spending quite some time working on it as a functional problem, I didn't seem to get anywhere. I have to admit that I then shamelessly wrote a simple code to compute some values of T(n) and then guessed the pattern and prove it, which is a great advantage, and never possible, in real competition.

Anyways, the key observation is this: what will happen if the empty set is red and f(empthset) = 0? Then one of f({1}), …, f({n}) is zero. Let's say f({1}) = 0, then one of f({1, 2}), f({1, 3}), …..., f({1, n}) is zero. Let's say f({1, 2}) = 0, then...

Eventually, with f(emptyset)=0 we arrive at a situation that without loss of generality, for any subset A of {1, 2, ..., n − 1} its color is red and f(A) = 0, and all sets that may have non-zero f() value are those including n. Moreover, interestingly we could treat these 2n − 1 sets containing n as another identical problem on {1, 2, 3, ..., n − 1}, as long as n is temporarily ignored. Now either f({n}) = 1, or f({n}) = 0 and maybe some set containing n is not 0, and so on. So if G(n) is the number of coloring with f(∅) = 1, we might have

T(n) = C(n, 0)G(n) + C(n, 1)G(n − 1) + C(n, 2)G(n − 2) + ... + C(n, n)G(0) + 1

The rough argument is to have a minimum set A with f(A) = 1. For |A| = 0 the count is C(n, 0)G(n), for |A| = 1 the count is C(n, 1)G(n − 1), and so on. 1 counts for the coloring with f(A) = 0 for every A.

Again, I then shamelessly changed my code to figure out G(n) = 2n, and so

T(n) = C(n, 0)2n + C(n, 1)2n − 1 + C(n, 2)2n − 2 + … + C(n, n)20 + 1 = (1 + 2)n + 1 = 3n + 1

Now the rigorous proof will strengthen the arguments and show G(n) = 2n. As always, it appears much less intuitive when we make it formal.

Proof

Throughout the proof we ignore the trivial coloring with all subsets labeled red, and will add it back at the last step. We're also only concerned with coloring that makes (*) hold. We proceed with a series of lemmas, some of which self-evident.

Lemma 1

f(A) > 0 iff A contains a blue subset.

Lemma 2

There is an unique minimum blue subset S.

To prove it, consider two different minimum blue subsets S and S with same size. Then f(SS’) > 0. Since SS is smaller than S and S, by Lemma 1 this is a contradiction.

Lemma 3

f(A) > 0 iff A contains the minimum blue subset S.

If f(A) > 0 then B = SA also has f(B) > 0, meaning B has a blue subset. Now if A doesn't contain S, then |B| < |S|, a contradiction.

Lemma 4

Let T(n) be the answer to the original problem, and G(n) be the number of colorings with f(∅) = 1. Then T(n) = C(n, 0)G(n) + C(n, 1)G(n − 1) + … + C(n, n)G(0) + 1

Let the minimum blue subset be S. By Lemma 3 all subsets not containing S should be red. We can check that (1) the problem of coloring subsets containing S is equivalent to the original problem on set N − S when we map each X to X − S. (2) (*) still holds whether A and B contains S or not. So by iterating through all possible S we get the T(n) as described.

Finally, it suffices to show that G(n) = 2n. This is the most interesting part to me.

The idea is to prove that each coloring of singletons {1}, {2}, {3}, …, {n} leads to one and only one possible colorings of the rest, and therefore G(n) = 2n.

To show there's only one possible coloring given a coloring of all singletons, first observe that f({i}) is either 1 or 2. So f(doubleton) is either 1, 2, or 4. By induction on |A| we can see that f(A) can take at most one value, which is a power of 2, because f(A) = f({x})f(A − {x}) ⁄ f(∅) = f({x})f(A − {x}) where x belongs to A. Now the last remaining piece is to show such f makes (*) hold all the time.

For any A, because the only possible f(A) is constructed as product of other f() which are power of 2, L(A) = log2(f(A)) is always integer, and L(A) = L({x}) + L(A − {x}). Therefore L(A) is the number of blue singletons contained by A! Now how are non-singletons colored so that f(A) is also the number of blue subsets owned by A? We can color A blue iff all singletons of A are blue. Then f’(A), the function defined based on this coloring, is the number of subsets of A containing only singletons that are blue, i.e. f’(A) = 2L(A) = f(A), so this only possible f(A) is also achievable.

Q.E.D.

An example of coloring with f(∅) = 1 when n = 4. Notation: color/f/L

∅ : B ⁄ 1 ⁄ 0

{1} : B ⁄ 2 ⁄ 1, {2} : R ⁄ 1 ⁄ 0, {3} : R ⁄ 1 ⁄ 0, {4} : B ⁄ 2 ⁄ 1

{1, 2} : R ⁄ 2 ⁄ 1, {1, 3} : R ⁄ 2 ⁄ 1, {1, 4} : B ⁄ 4 ⁄ 2, {2, 3} : R ⁄ 1 ⁄ 0, {2, 4} : R ⁄ 2 ⁄ 1, {3, 4} : R ⁄ 2 ⁄ 1

{1, 2, 3} : R ⁄ 2 ⁄ 1, {1, 2, 4} : R ⁄ 4 ⁄ 2, 1, 3, 4 : R ⁄ 4 ⁄ 2, {2, 3, 4} : R ⁄ 2 ⁄ 1

{1, 2, 3, 4} : R ⁄ 4 ⁄ 2


post by Shen-Fu Tsai


References:

[1]USAMO Problems and Solutions
[2]International Mathematical Olympiad